The Pre-registration examination for pharmacists is a bi-yearly examination for pharmacists that finished their internship programme. It is a requirement for pharmacists to be registered and licensed in Nigeria by the PCN. The examination is a 200 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) to be answered in 2 hours.
We have compiled a list of some possible PEP Exams Past Questions you have to expect during the examination. The areas covered are Pharmacology, Clinical Pharmacy, Pharmacognosy, Pharmaceutics, Forensic Pharmacy (or Pharmacy Law), Pharmacy Management, and Public Health
PEP Exams Past Questions
Which of the following holistically captures pharmacists’ role in health care? (a) Distribution (b) Clinical Pharmacy (c) Pharmaceutical Care (d) Total Pharmacy care
2. How many components are there in pharmaceutical care philosophy, as espoused by Hepler and Strand? (a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) One
3. Pharmacists’ responsibility in pharmaceutical care is to: (a) Counsel patients (b) Dispense medications (c) Identify common symptoms (d) Resolve drug therapy problems
4. The most beneficial outcome of drug therapy to the patient is: (a) Clinical (b) Economic (c) Humanistic (d) Process
5. “Length of stay” in a care facility is an example of which outcome? (a) Clinical (b) Economic (c) Humanistic (d) Process
6. Which of the following outcomes in malaria therapy may result in resistance development? (a) Clinical cure (b) Parasitological Cure (c) Radical Cure (d) None of the options
7. The “cornerstone” step in the provision of pharmaceutical care is to: (a) Establish professional relationship (b) Collect patient data (c) Identify drug therapy problems (d) Document activities
8. Data collected through patient interview is often described as: (a) Inaccurate (b) Accurate (c) Subjective (d) Objective
9. One of the following is regarded as a novel pharmaceutical care behavior: (a) Monitor patient outcomes (b) Obtain patient symptom information (c) Make a recommendation (d) Obtain patient medication history
10. Which of the following components of quality is the most important to the patient? (a) Structure (b) Process (c) Outcome (d) Structure and Process
11. Process criteria in pharmaceutical care are divided into: (a) Structure and Process (b) Technical and Interpersonal (c) Subjective and Objective (d) Manual and Computerized.
12. Pharmacoeconomics provides evidence for health care decisions in terms of: (a) Clinical efficacy (b) Patient Safety (c) Medication Effectiveness (d) Value for money
13. Effectiveness of medicinal products is determined in: (a) Laboratory evaluation (b) Clinical trial (c) Real world (d) Post-marketing surveillance
14. Which of the following is not correct regarding drug therapy problems: (a) Medical problem (b) Negative outcome (c) Amenable to detection (d) None of the options
15. Drug related needs of patients include the following, EXCEPT: (a) Appropriate indication (b) Effectiveness (c) Safety (d) Treated indication
16. An asthmatic patient was given propranolol for palpitations. The potential drug therapy problems are: (a) Unnecessary drug therapy and untreated indication (b) Wrong drug and adverse drug reaction (c) Inappropriate adherence and dosage too high (d) Wrong drug and non-adherence
17. Pharmacists communicating with patient should NOT: (a) Appear relaxed (b) Use gestures (c) Use 100% eye contact (d) Be positioned at patients’ eye level
18. “How do you take your antihypertensive medication?” Is an example of: (a) Open ended question (b) Close ended question (c) Leading question (d) Direct question
19. Pharmacist-patient communication should avoid this question type: (a) Open ended (b) Close ended (c) Leading (d) Probing
20. The procedure used to evaluate structures lying 4-5 cm under the skin is called: (a) Inspection (b) Palpation (c) Percussion (d) Auscultation
21. Beta-blocker induced bradycardia is physically assessed using: (a) Inspection and Palpation (b) Auscultation and Percussion (c) Palpation and Auscultation (d) Percussion and Palpation
22. One of the following is a direct method of assessing adherence: (a) Pill count (b) Urine assay (c) Refill record (d) Measurement of health outcome
23. Patient adherence is an example of intermediate: (a) Clinical outcome (b) Humanistic outcome (c) Economic outcome (d) None of the options
24. Strategies to improve adherence include the following, EXCEPT: (a) Promote self-efficacy (b) Empower patients (c) Fear tactics (d) Telephone call
25. The first stage in developing collaboration between pharmacists and physicians is: (a) Professional awareness (b) Professional recognition (c) Exploration and trial (d) Commitment to collaboration
26. Characteristics of the pharmaceutical care product include the following, except: (a) Inconsistent (b) Intangible (c) Inventoried (d) Inseparable
27. When marketing pharmaceutical care, which of the following Ps is in addition to those encountered in the marketing of pharmaceuticals? (a) Promotion (b) Position (c) Product (d) Place
28. Factors necessitating individualized pharmaceutical care in the elderly include the following, EXCEPT: (a) Multiple diseases (b) Polypharmacy (c) Adherence (d) Physiological changes
29. Off-label medication use is: (a) Applicable to children only (b) Unlicensed indication (c) Due to paediatric formulary (d) All of the options
30. Patient-focused intervention in hypertension includes the following, EXCEPT: (a) Education (b) Adherence promotion (c) Dosage adjustment (d) Low salt diet
31. Which of these interventions is beneficial in congestive heart failure? (a) Moderate smoking (b) Moderate alcohol (c) Moderate exercise (d) All of the options
32. Dyspnea experienced in heart failure is due to: (a) Left ventricular hypertrophy (b) Right ventricular hypertrophy (c) Pulmonary edema (d) Peripheral edema
33. Medications with known evidence to improve survival in cardiac failure include the following, EXCEPT: (a) ACEIs (b) Spirinolactone (c) Digoxin (d) None of the options
34. All patients with a suspected acute myocardial infarction should be given aspirin to: (a) Reduce chest pain (b) Dissolve thrombus (c) Reduce myocardial oxygen (d) All of the options
35. Long term glycemic control is monitored with: (a) Glycosylated hemoglobin (b) Blood pressure (c) Fasting blood glucose (d) Fasting lipid profile
36. Which of the following may be an additional drug therapy in diabetes care? (a) Insulin (b) Metformin (c) Lisinopril (d) Acarbose
37. Which of the following drugs may lower serum phenytoin level? (a) Cimetidine (b) Carbamazepine (c) Metronidazole (d) Fluconazole
38. Some antihypertensive agents affect potassium levels. Which option is wrongly matched? (a) Lisinopril → hyperkalemia (b) Losartan → hyperkalemia (c) Enalapril → hypokalemia (d) Hydrochlorothiazide → hypokalemia
39. The following are cardio-selective β – adrenoreceptor antagonists, EXCEPT: (a) Timolol (b) Acebutolol (c) Metoprolol (d) Atenolol
40. A 57-year-old diabetic male is currently on a long-acting insulin injection once a day. While reviewing his medication, it was observed that postprandial glucose levels are too high. Which of the following insulin preparations may be recommended to control his postprandial hyperglycemia? (a) Lente insulin (b) Insulin lispro (c) Regular insulin (d) Insulin glargine
41. Which of the following is a commonly prescribed hypnotic drug known to have anxiolytic, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant actions? (b) Tramadol (b) Imipramine (c) Diazepam (d) Phenobarbitone
42. A patient is brought into the emergency room after an attempted suicide. She had consumed three bottles of an arsenic-containing insecticide. Which of the following medications may be administered? (b) Dimercaprol (b) Deferoxamine (c) Amyl nitrite (d) Methylene blue
44. In the education and management of an asthmatic patient, the following are recommended, EXCEPT: (a) The patient should have an understanding of the action of each of the prescribed medicines. (b) The choice of the inhalation devices(s) should be appropriate. (c) The patient should be educated on proper mode of usage of drugs and inhalation devices. (d) A general management plan should suffice for all patients.
45. Which of the following is likely to cause hyperglycemia and hypercholesterolemia in an HIV-positive patient? (b) Zidovudine (b) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole (c) Acyclovir (d) Indinavir
46. Select the wrongly matched adverse effect: (a) Chloroquine→Convulsions (b) Furosemide→ Hyperglycemia (c) Formoterol →Bronchoconstriction (d) Codeine →Depression of respiration
47. It is of utmost importance to conduct which of the following tests before initiation of therapy with metformin? (a) Serum creatinine (b) Serum potassium (c) Complete blood count (d) Platelet count
48. A 7-year-old boy receiving treatment for allergic rhinitis has flushed cheeks and dilated pupils on physical examination. These findings are due to antagonism of which receptors? (b) Nicotinic (b) H2 (c) Muscarinic (d) H1
49. These adverse effects may occur on administration of typical antipsychotics, EXCEPT: (a). Weight gain (b) Acute dystonia (c) Akathisia (d) Hypoprolactinemia
50. On ingestion of some tablets of chlorpheniramine, a patient experienced blurred vision. This effect is most likely related to antagonism of which of the following neurotransmitters? (a) Serotonin (b) Acetylcholine (c) Adrenaline (d) Histamine
51. These agents may cause hyperkalemia, EXCEPT: (a). Lisinopril (b) Hydrochlorothiazide (c) Valsartan (d) Amiloride
52. A 46-year-old nurse presents with delirium. Physical examination revealed hot and flushed skin, dry oral mucosa, pupils poorly responsive to light and dilated. A bottle of atropine was found in her pocket. Which of the following drugs can cause a similar clinical presentation? (b) Prazosin (b) Amitriptyline (c) Bromazepam (d) Echothiophate
53. Which of the following drugs has the least potential to cause tolerance and addiction? (b) Zolpidem (b) Bromazepam (c) Flurazapem (d) Estazolam
55. A 2-year-old boy has moderate growth retardation and prominent brown stains on his teeth. These may be attributed to the mother’s use of the following substances during pregnancy? (a) Alcohol (b) Cocaine (c) Tetracycline (d) Aspirin
56. Which of the following substances would MOST RAPIDLY reverse the effects of warfarin? (b) Protamine (b) Fresh frozen plasma (c) Vitamin K (d) Succimer
57. Which of the following antituberculosis drugs is known to cause high uric acid levels? (a) Cycloserine (b) Isoniazid (c) Rifampicin (d) Pyrazinamide
58. Which drug interaction is correct? (a) Sulphonamides significantly reduce the effects of chlorpropamide. (b) Lamivudine antagonizes the action of nevirapine. (c) ACEIs may decrease the plasma levels of digoxin. (d) Co-administration of nevirapine lowers the saquinavir levels considerably.
59. A 54-year-old male suffering from depression, is treated with sertraline. Which of these is the most likely side effect due to sertraline? (b) Hypotension (b) Cardiac arrhythmias (c) Sexual dysfunction (d) Weight gain
60. Adding clavulanic acid to a course of amoxicillin serves to? (b) Delay hepatic metabolism of amoxicillin (b) Increase glomerular filtration of amoxicillin (c) Decrease inactivation of amoxicillin by bacteria (d) Decrease renal clearance of amoxicillin
61. A 58-year-old man taking hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension presents with muscle weakness and cramps. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms? (a) Hypokalemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypouricemia
62. These are adverse effects of captopril, EXCEPT: (a) Hypokalemia (b) Fetopathic potential (c) alteration or loss of taste (d) dry cough
63. A patient was prescribed a drug for motion sickness, which of the following adverse effects is he likely to experience? (b) Frequent urination (b) Diarrhea (c) Dry mouth (d) Nasal congestion
64. Which of the following may precipitate sympathetic (hypertensive) crisis? (a) Mature cheese + bupropion (b) Tyramine + phenelzine (c) Red wine + edrophonium (d) Metoprolol + fluoxetine
65. A 62-year-old male presents to the hospital with suprapubic pain and anuria; placement of Foley’s catheter reveals 1000 ml of urine. He was previously diagnosed with hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Recently, he was treated for painful peripheral neuropathy. Which of the following drugs may have contributed to the patient’s current condition? (a) Atorvastatin (b) Metformin (c) Tamsulosin (d) Amitriptyline
66. Which of the following is an antidote used in paracetamol overdose? (a) Deferoxamine (b) Dimercaprol (c) Disulfiram (d) N-acetylcysteine
67. On administration of IV atropine, a patient with organophosphate poisoning gradually improves. Which of the following is still a risk for the patient? (a) Muscle paralysis (b) Urinary incontinence (c) Bronchospasm (d) Diarrhea
68. The development of hemorrhagic cystitis in a breast cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy may be prevented by the administration of: (b) Ondansetron (b) Mesna (c) N-acetylcysteine (d) Folinic acid
69. A 55-year-old male treated with high-dose methotrexate experiences fever, painful mouth ulcers and pancytopenia. Which of the following agents could have prevented his condition? (a) Acetaminophen (b) Allopurinol (c) Ceftriaxone (d) Leucovorin
70. The following should be avoided in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient individuals, EXCEPT: (a) Paracetamol (b) Chloroquine (c) Dapsone (d) Camphor mothballs
71. Which of the following may be used to provide anticoagulant therapy for a pregnant woman with deep vein thrombosis? (b) Clopidogrel (b) Heparin (c) Warfarin (d) Aminocaproic acid
72. A 53-year-old hypercholesterolemic, diabetic and hypertensive male presented to the hospital three weeks after starting a new medication. Laboratory tests show increase in potassium from 4.8 – 5.2 mEq/L and creatinine from 1.1 – 1.7 mg/dL. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for the clinical picture? (b) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Furosemide (c) Lisinopril (d) Atorvastatin
73. While at a party, a 22-year-old female taking a certain medication develops facial flushing, headache, nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps immediately after consuming an alcoholic drink. Which of these drugs did she likely take? (b) Metronidazole (b) Acetaminophen (c) vitamin C (d) Folic acid
74. Which of the following drugs rarely causes hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy? (a) Glibenclamide (b) Regular insulin (c) Metformin (d) Glipizide
75. In the use of medicines, the dose capable of producing marked functional derangement in the body is called: (a) Minimum dose (b) Maximum dose (c) Lethal dose (d) Toxic dose
76. A dose given on the initiation of therapy to give rapid drug plasma levels equivalent to that reached after multiple dosing is called: (a) Loading Dose (b) Therapeutic dose (c) Maximum Dose (d) Maintenance dose
77. All factors being equal, which of the following formulations has the least bioavailability: (a) Suspension (b) Capsule (c) Emulsion (d) Solutions
78. How many millilitres of 100 units/mL soluble insulin should be administered to achieve a dose of 20 units? (a) 0.002 (b) 0.02 (c ) 0.2 (d) 2
79. Concerning inhalers, which of the following statements is CORRECT? (a) In children, breath-actuated inhalers are preferred to a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer. (b) Improper respiratory function has no effect on the use of breath actuated inhalers. (c) The disadvantage of breath-actuated inhalers is that there is need to coordinate actuation with inhalation. (d) The disadvantage of metered-dose inhalers can be overcome through the use of a spacer.
80. Which of the following drugs used in nausea and vomiting has the advantage of not readily crossing the blood– brain barrier? (a) Domperidone (b) Metoclopramide (c) Prochlorperazine (d) All of the options
81. When handling a prescription in a stock out situation, which of the following actions may the pharmacist NOT take? (a) Inform the prescriber. (b) If the medicine cannot be substituted with another medicine that is available, inform the patient. (c) If the patient agrees for it to be supplied at a later time, arrange to get stock. (d) If the patient requires the medicine urgently, the pharmacist can substitute without the prescriber’s permission.
82. When dispensing medicines, which of the following actions may NOT be carried out? (a) Pick the medicine by reading the label at least twice and cross-checking the medicine name and strength against the prescription (b) Tablets/capsules may be removed from the strip/blister when dispensing (c) Loose capsules/tablets should be packed in a clean dry container (d) None of the options
83. When compounding psychotropic substances, which of the options is NOT appropriate (a) Can be carried out by any health professional (b) Must be carried out by a licensed pharmacist (c) Must be based on the request of a medical practitioner (d) None of the options
84. Which of the following will make a better choice for the management of allergic rhinitis? (a) Pseudoephedrine (b) Promethazine (c) Oxymetazoline (d) levocetirizine
85. Which of the following may be recommended for use in a 3-month-old baby with chronic constipation? (a) Glycerol suppositories (b) Bisacodyl (c) Ispaghula husk (d) Senna
86. Factors that affect drug absorption include all EXCEPT: (a) Drug half-life (b) Gastric motility (c) Blood flow (d) Food intake
87. Timolol 0.25% eye drops is equivalent to how many mg of timolol/mL: (a) 0.0025 mg (b) 0.025 mg (c) 0.25 mg (d) 2.5 mg
88. Which of the following is a protease inhibitor that may be used to boost the activity of lopinavir? (a) Stavudine (b) Indinavir (c) Ritonavir (d) Atazanavir
89. Which of the following drugs would you use with caution in patients with a history of peripheral neuropathy? (a) Stavudine (b) Indinavir (c) Ritonavir (d) Amprenavir
90. Which among the following is classified as an antihistamine? (a) Chlorpromazine (b) Compazine (c) Chlorothiazide (d) Cetirizine
91. Which of the following is NOT an antiretroviral medicine? (a) Acyclovir (b) Abacavir (c) Dolutegravir (d) Etravirine
92. Which of the following is NOT a psychotropic medicine? (a) Sertraline (b) Fluoxetine (c) Chlorpromazine (d) Amantadine
93. One of the following medicines requires that the dose be tapered? (a) Prednisolone (b) Nevirapine (c) Primaquine (d) Ciprofloxacin
94. A lady was prescribed 40 mg furosemide once daily. What is the best time to take it? (a) Morning (b) Afternoon (c) Evening (d) Bedtime
95. Which of the following medicines is recommended for use in intermittent preventive treatment in Nigeria? (a) Sulfadoxine/Pyrimethamine (b) Sulfadoxine/trimethoprim (c) Sulfamethoxazole/pyrimethamine (d) Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
96. International normalized ratio may be routinely measured once or twice a year when using which of the following? (a) Rivaroxaban (b) Warfarin (c) Urokinase (d) Aspirin
97. For whom among the following patients is ferrous sulphate NOT recommended? (a) Patient on ARV medicine (b) Megaloblastic anaemic (c) Sickle cell anaemic (d) Pernicious anaemic
98. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to community pharmacy’s involvement in the new public health agenda? (a) A propensity for pharmacists to focus on the biomedical model of health (b) The operation of community pharmacy in a retail environment (c) A lack of cooperation between pharmacists in the community pharmacy sector (d) The location of many community pharmacies
99. Fluoridation of water is an example of a: (a) Primary prevention strategy (b) Secondary prevention strategy (c) Tertiary prevention strategy (d) Primordial prevention strategy
100. Pharmacists who encourage patients with diabetes or heart disease to take their medications appropriately are involved in: (a) Primary prevention (b) Secondary prevention (c) Specialist prevention (d) Tertiary prevention
101. Knowledge sharing which encourages people’s change in lifestyle, attitudes towards health care and health is: (a) Public health system (b) Medical anthropology (c) Epidemiology (d) Health promotion
102. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the National Health Management Information System (NHMIS)? (a) To provide information to only policy-makers at the highest national level (b) To identify major health problems (c) To set priorities at the Local, State and National levels (d) To assess the state of the health of the population
103. Which of the following is NOT a public health performance indicator? (a) Maternal Mortality Rate (b) Infant Mortality Rate (c) Life expectancy (d) Mean Age
104. The objectives of National Drug Policy (NDP) include the following, EXCEPT: (a) To ensure efficient and effective drug management (b) To ensure access to safe, effective, affordable and good quality drugs (c) To enhance drug exportation (d) To promote the rational use of drugs
105. The following are essential strategies for implementing National Drug Policy (NDP), EXCEPT: (a) Selection of drugs (b) Procurement of drugs (c) Advertisement Policy (d) Pricing policy
106. The Essential Medicines List (EML) shall be used for the following, EXCEPT: (a) Procurement of drugs in the public sector (b) Prescribing drugs in the public sector (c) Procurement of drugs in the private sector (d) Production of Standard Treatment Guidelines
107. The following are reasons for failure of Drug Revolving Fund Scheme, EXCEPT: (a) Poor management (b) Reimbursement of the cost of drugs for exempted patients (c) Misapplication of the Fund (d) Purchasing of drugs at exorbitant prices
108. A body that is responsible for compiling, maintaining, and updating Hospital Formulary is known as : (a) Drug and Therapeutics Committee (b) Drug and Hospital Formulary Committee (c) Hospital and Therapeutic Committee (d) Formulary and Therapeutics Committee
109. A method of detecting, assessing, preventing and managing adverse drugs reactions is called: (a) Pharmacoeconomics (b) Pharmaceutical Care (c) Pharmacovigilance (d) Pharmacotherapeutics
110. Systematic criteria-based appraisal of use of medicines is called: (a) Clinical Trial (b) Drug Use Evaluation (d) Drug Use Monitoring D. Drug Use Audit
111. Typical pharmacoeconomic studies include all of the following EXCEPT: (a) Cost-minimization analysis (b) Cost of illness analysis (c) Cost-benefit analysis (d) Cost-utility analysis
112. The community pharmacy that can quote shares in the stock exchange market is: (a) Private limited liability (b) Sole proprietorship (c) Public limited liability (d) Partnership
113. The following is not a scope of community pharmacy: (a) Therapeutic drug monitoring (b) Point-of-care testing (c) Monitoring patients’ health (d) Health education
114. The retailer’s selling price minus the cost price is: (a) Mark-up (b) Margin (c) Estimated price (d) Net profit
115. A code of ethics is a set of: (a) Fundamental legal principles (b) Rule of laws (c) Moral duties and obligations (d) All of the options
116. Proprietary name of a drug is the name given by the manufacturer as: (a) Retailer name (b) Chemical name (c) Brand name (d) Generic name
117. Control of the counterfeit and fake drugs and unwholesome processed foods (miscellaneous provisions) is contained in: (a) Decree 25 of 1999 (b) Decree 25 of 1989 (c) Decree 25 of 1998 (d) Decree 25 of 2000
118. The Schedule of controlled substances is identified as: (a) Schedule 1-V (b) Schedule 1-X (c) Schedule 1-VI (d) Schedule1-1V
119. The National Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control is empowered by the following statute and as amended: (a) Decree 14 of 1993 (b) Decree 14 of 1990 (c) Decree 15 of 1993 (d) Decree 19 of 1999
120. Pharmacy professional competency criteria include the following, EXCEPT: (a) Practising within legal requirements (b) Demonstrating professional integrity (c) Upholding professional standards and code of ethic (d) Registration of Pharmaceutical products
121. The code of ethics applies to all registered Pharmacists holding licences, certificates under the: (a) PCN Act P17 LFN 2001 (b) PCN Act P17 LFN 2002 (c) PCN Act P17 LFN 2003 (d) PCN Act P17 LFN 2004
122. Pharmacy Jurisprudence means the science of: (a) Laws relating to pharmacy practice, but not ethics of pharmacy practice. (b) Pharmacy practice but not laws of pharmacy. (c) Ethics pertaining to pharmacy practice, but not laws of pharmacy practice. (d) Laws and ethics relating to pharmacy practice.
123. The record of the dangerous drugs must be kept for minimum of: (a) Ten years (b) Five years (c) Four years (d) Two years
124. Drug matters are listed as: (a) Item 19 of part 2 in the first Schedule of 1999 Constitution (b) Item 21 of part 2 in the second Schedule of 1999 Constitution (c) Item 21 of part 1 in the second Schedule of 1999 Constitution (d) Item 19 of part 1 in the first Schedule of 1999 Constitution
125. The composition of the members of the Governing Council of PCN includes the following EXCEPT: (a) A Chairman (b) DPS of all the States of the Federation, including FCT (c) The Director-General of NAFDAC (d) The Director-General of NIPRD
126. Which of the following statements is NOT relevant to essential medicines list guiding principle of selection? (a) There is the need to subsidize medicines (b) Funds are limited (c) Large numbers of drugs are available (d) Impossible to keep up-to-date with all the drugs on the market
127. Medicines in the essential medicines list (EML) are selected with due regard to the following EXCEPT: (a) Public health relevance (b) Evidence on efficacy and safety (c) Cost-effectiveness (d) NAFDAC registration
128. Which of these is NOT an advantage of generic products: (a) Names are more informative (b) Often less expensive (c) More available (d) Prescribing facilitates substitution
129. Which of the following is NOT a function of drug and therapeutics committees? (a) Develop formularies (b) Ensure adherence to treatment guidelines (c) Approve sources of medicines (d) Engage in prescription auditing
130. Which of the following does NOT cause liver damage? (a) Pyridoxine (b) Paracetamol (c) Amiodarone (d) Amoxycillin/clavulanic acid
131. What is the antidote for heparin toxicity? (a) Protamine sulphate (b) Warfarin (c) Dopamine (d) Calcium salt
132. What is the antidote for warfarin toxicity? (a) Coumarin (b) Heparin (c) Iron salt (d) vitamin K
133. Nitrite laboratory test is used in which of the following? (a) Management of angina (b) Diagnosis of urinary tract infection (c) Diagnosis of liver disease (d) Management of ulcer
134. How much of an API (g) would be required to produce 0.5L of a 15 mg/ 10 mL solution? (a) 7.5 g (b) 0.15 g (c) 0.75 g (d) 750 g
135. Rx Ferrous sulphate 1 g Ascorbic acid 0.1g Orange syrup 10 ml Chloroform water to 100 ml Fiat mistura pro inf. In the formulation above, what is the role of chloroform water? (a) Antioxidant (b) Acid emulsifier (c) Neutralizer (d) Vehicle
136. You are requested by a paediatrician to prepare Erythromycin ethyl succinate suspension 500 mg/5mL for a patient weighing 50 kg. If the dose of Erythromycin ethyl succinate is 50 mg/kg/day, what volume of the suspension will you prepare for a ten-day supply? (a) 125 mL (b) 250 mL (c) 175 mL (d) 500 mL
137. Which of the following is NOT an attribute used in standardizing pharmaceutical packages? (a) Protection (b) Safety (c) Colour (d) Drug Delivery
138. Stress cracking is a negative feature of which of the following pharmaceutical packages? (a) Plastics (b) Borosilicate glass (c) Soda-lime glass (d) Rubber
139. The label for an extemporaneous product contains the following, EXCEPT: (a) Full names of the excipients (b) Additional warnings (c) Appropriate expiry date (d) Name of the product
140. Which of the following is NOT an applicable mechanism of milling in the Industry? (a) Compression (b) Attrition (c) Reversal (d) Cutting
141. Which of the following DOES NOT principally affect the compression characteristics of the tablets? (a) Diluent (b) Disintegrant (c) Binder (d) Anti-adherent
142. The following methods are applicable when measuring dissolution rates, EXCEPT: (a) Beaker method (b) Flask-stirrer method (c) Flip-disc method (d) Paddle method
143. Which of the following IS NOT applicable during the preparation of a solution? (a) To aid dissolution, high-viscosity liquid components should be added to those of lower viscosity. (b) To aid dissolution, low-viscosity liquid components should be added to those of higher viscosity. (c) Completely dissolve salts in a small amount of water prior to the addition of other solvent elements. (d) Aqueous solutions should be added to alcoholic solutions with stirring to maintain the alcohol concentration as high as possible.
144. Which of the following IS NOT a reason for establishing Quality Control Departments? (a) Minimize the risk of marketing unsafe products (b) Guarantee product efficiency (c) Guarantee patient compliance (d) Guarantee meeting regulatory requirement
145. Which of the following dryers IS NOT applicable for drying damp solids? (a) Tray (b) Tunnel (c) Rotary (d) Spray
147. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Creamed emulsion will reform on shaking (b) Creamed emulsion will not reform on shaking. (c) Cracked emulsion will reform on shaking (d) Phase inverted emulsion will revert on shaking.
148. Which of the following properties IS NOT important when choosing suppository bases? (a) Melting Range (b) Solid-Fat Index (c) Hydroxyl value (d) Freezing point value
149. Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for the release of histamine in cells? (a) IgE (b) IgA (c) IgG (d) IgM
150. Poultry birds are not vaccinated against which of the following diseases? (a) Newcastle (b) Bronchitis (c) Encephalomyelitis (d) Intestinal worm
151. Changes that may occur in a poorly preserved cosmetic include all the following EXCEPT: (a) Emulsion products may undergo viscosity change (b) Clarity of products may be retained. (c) Package and product may react (d) Perfumes may lose smell intensity
152. The ideal container for pharmaceutical products should have the following properties, EXCEPT: (a) Robust enough to protect the contents against crushing during handling and transport (b) Made of polymers in order to promote good patient compliance. (c) Convenient to open and close (d) Made of inert materials
153. Which of the following IS NOT a mechanism for preservative action against microbial Contamination? (a) Destruction of cell wall material (b) Interference with microbial metabolism (c) Cell wall enhancement profiling (d) Microbial protein complexation
154. Which of the following parameters IS NOT suitable for a sustained-release candidate? (a) Greater than 75% absolute bioavailability (b) Total clearance is dose dependent (c) Elimination half-life of 3-7 hrs (d) High apparent partition-coefficient
155. The following are benefits of integration of traditional and orthodox medicines EXCEPT: (a) it will improve the quality and value of research in traditional medicine (b) it guarantees less access to healthcare delivery for people in the rural areas (c) if traditional medicine use is covered by insurance, patronage will increase (d) it will promote the proper use and development of traditional medicine practice
157. Choose the INCORRECT answer: (a) Traditional medicine relies on past experience (b) Traditional medicine practices are always explicable (c) Traditional medicine is used in diagnosing and prevention of diseases (d) Traditional medicine is a combination of knowledge and practices
158. Spinal cord injury is BEST managed by one of the following alternative medical practices: (a) Acupuncture (b) Chiropractic (c) Naturopathy (c) Ayurveda
159. Materia medica contains herbal remedies of: (a) Indian origin (b) Chinese origin (c) Hippocrates (d) Unani
160. For identification of a medicinal plant, the following parts are required, EXCEPT: (a) Root (b) Leaf (c) Flower (d) Seed
161. Macroscopic evaluation of a medicinal plant includes the following characteristics, EXCEPT: (a) Size (b) Shape (c) Histology (d) Texture
162. Which of the following is a physical, mental and spiritual practice that aims to transform body and mind? (a) Ayurveda (b) Unani (c) Homeopathy (d)Yoga
163. Which of the following is complementary medical therapy? (a) Acupuncture (b) Traditional Chinese Medicine (c) Ayuverda (d) Naturopathy
164. Choose the INCORRECT answer: (a) Garlic capsules combined with antidiabetic medications can cause an increase in blood sugar. (b) Orange juice decreases the absorption of aluminium in antacids containing aluminium. (c) Orange juice should be avoided when taking antibiotics (d) Grapefruit juice interacts with calcium channel blockers
165. A herbal preparation is made by placing plant materials in cold water, bringing it to boil, simmering for a few minutes before decanting is: (a) Concoction (b) Decoction (c) Extraction (d) Infusion
166. All the following are penicillinase-resistant EXCEPT: (a) Oxacillin (b) Nafcillin (c) Flucloxacillin (d) Amoxycillin
167. Which of the following protocol is advisable in initiating nevirapine in a patient taking it for the first time? (a) One dose of nevirapine is given daily for the first 14 days of the treatment period (b) Two doses of nevirapine are given in two divided doses daily for the first 14 days of the treatment period (c) One dose of nevirapine is given daily for the first 28 days of treatment period (d) Two doses of nevirapine are given in two divided doses daily for the first 28 days of treatment period
168. Which of the following drugs would you recommend for onychomycosis? (a) Metronidazole (b) Methimazole (c) Itraconazole (d) Albendazole
169. Which of the following would prevent abortion in a pregnant woman with a low luteal phase? (a) Ethinyloestradiol (b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (c) Hydroxylprogestrone (d) Prolactin
170. Which of the following drugs would cause kernicterus when administered in pregnant women? (a) Sulphamethoxazole (b) Gentamycin (c) Flucytosine (d) Lamivudine
171. Which of the following drugs improves the left ventricular ejection fraction in heart failure? (a) Acebutolol (b) Propranolol (c) Carvedilol (d) Atenolol
172. Which of the following diluent is most appropriate for mixing ceftriaxone injection powder to be administered intravenously? (a) Water for injection (b) Lignocaine solution for injection (c) Sodium bicarbonate solution for injection (d) Dextrose solution for injection
173. An eye drop, once opened, should not be used beyond: (a) 1 week (b) 2 weeks (c) 4 weeks (d) Expiration date
174. Which of the following contraceptive methods can predispose women to sexually transmitted infections? (a) Oral pills (b) Intrauterine devices (c) Injectable contraceptives (d) Implants
175. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs would also benefit a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia? (a) Telminsatan (b) Sotalol (c) Doxazosin (d) Clonidine
176. Adrenaline mixed with xylocaine injection will: (a) Prolong the activity of xylocaine (b) Enhance metabolism of xylocaine (c) Make Xylocaine soluble in the injection solvent (d) Improve the bioavailability of xylocaine
177. By convention, 24G IV cannular is identified by which colour? (a) Red (b) Yellow (c) Green (d) Blue
178. Use of low dose aspirin prevents: (a) Hypertensive crisis (b) Stroke (c) Arrhythmia (d) Cardiomyopathy
179. What information can be deduced from tmax of a drug? (a) Time a drug should be administered to get maximum response (b) Time it takes a drug administered to reach maximum plasma concentration (c) Time it takes for drug administered to be maximally binded to the plasma protein (d) Time it takes for drug administered to be completely absorbed
180. Which of the following drugs will have a large volume of distribution? (a) Drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein (b) Drugs with low lipid solubility (c) Drugs that accumulate in fatty tissue (d) Drugs with larger molecules
181. Which of these would confer passive immunization? (a) Administration of live attenuated organism (b) Administration of antigenic portion of organism (c) Administration of immunoglobulin against the causative organism (d) Administration of dead organism
182. The urine M/C/S for Mrs. Ada reads as follows: Ciprofloxacin 3+, Gentamycin 1+, Cefixime 2+, Nalidixic acid 2+ Given that Mrs Ada has a previous history of reaction to moxifloxacin, which of the drugs above would you recommend for her treatment? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Gentamycin (c) Cefixime (d) Nalidixic Acid
183. Mixing is a fundamental step in most process sequences and normally carried out to: (a) Control heat and mass transfer (b) Decrease volume of bulk powders (c) Reduce physical and chemical reaction (d) None of the options
184. Which of the following is used in determining the volume of particles? (a) Microscopy (b) Sedimentation (c) Sieving (d) Coulter counter
185. The mixture of solid and liquid to be filtered is known as: (a) Filter cake (b) Filter medium (c) Filtrate (d) Slurry
186. The removal of bacteria from parenteral preparations is best accomplished by filters that operate which of these filtration mechanisms? (a) Impingement (b) Sieving (c) Attractive forces (d) Autofiltration
187. The movement of dissolved drug through the boundary layers into the bulk solution is by which of these? (a) Maceration (b) Percolation (c) Diffusion (d) Leaching
186. The most widely used diluent in tablet dosage form is? (a) Lactose (b) Tricalcium phosphate (c) Mannitol (d) Dextrose
187. Which of the following is a product of a liquid and an insoluble solid? (a) Emulsion (b) Cream (c) Solution (d) Suspension
188. Which of the following is not an advantage of microwave drying? (a) Solute migration is enhanced as there is uneven heating of the wet mass (b) It provides rapid drying at fairly low temperature (c) The bed is stationary, avoids problems of dust and attrition (d) The equipment is highly efficient and meets GMP standard
189. All the following are factors affecting dissolution, EXCEPT: (a) Wetting (b) Particle size (c) deaggregation (d) Vibration
190. A disintegrant is not required in one of the following tablets: (a) Buccal tablets (b) Sublingual tablets (c) Chewable tablets (d) Double layered tablets
191. An example of biphasic liquid dosage form is: (a) Suspension (b) Mixture (c) Syrup (d) Elixir
192. Which of the following cannot be filled into hard gelatin capsules? (a) Capsules (b) Tablets (c) Aqueous solutions (d) Thixotropic mixtures
193. Which of the following is not an advantage of sustained release oral dosage form? (a) Total amount of drug administered can be reduced (b) Increased reliability of therapy (c) Administration of sustained release medication permits prompt termination of therapy (d) The blood level oscillation characteristics of multiple dosing of conventional dosage forms is reduced
194. Quality control tests of suppositories involve the following EXCEPT: (a) Softening time (b) Breaking (c) Dissolution (d) Melting point
195. Isotonicity is required for: (a) Multidose injections (b) Single-dose injections (c) Infusions (d) All of the options.
196. Which of these is NOT true for intramuscular route for injections? (a) Injection is made into the muscles (b) Oily solutions/suspensions cannot be safely administered (c) Volume of injection does not usually exceed 4 milliliters (d) Depot effect can be achieved
197. Microorganisms can be efficiently removed by filtration with (a) Membrane filters (b) Ceramic filters (c) Seitz glass filters (d) None of the options
198. All the following are merits of validation in pharmaceutical production, EXCEPT: (a) Reduce time of product recall (b) Eliminate defect cost (c) Reduce risk of regulatory non-compliance (d) Reduce defect cost
199. Type I glass is also known as (a) Borosilicate glass (b) Regular soda-lime glass (c) Treated soda-lime glass (d) None of the options
200. Migration of oil phase into a packaging material observed in plastic is a good example of: (a) Leaching (b) Sorption (c) Modification (d) Permeation
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